This may, to some extent, be my view of this and not
necessarily in agreement with anyone else's take, or even the mainstream.
Many people may be aware that English has many words that
were in some way derived or borrowed from Latin or Greek. I'd like to explain
why that is.
First, many scientific words, including medical terms, were
coined from Latin and Greek roots. These terms are going to be very similar
across many languages (an exception is German, which stubbornly insisted on
coining new technical and scientific terms from native roots. For example, hydrogen
may be that or something quite similar in many languages, but in German 'hydrogen'
is Wasserstoff (the "stuff" water is made of) and 'television'
is Fernseh ("far seeing").
Medical terms tend to be Latin. This may be because at one
time Latin was the international language of learning, scholarship, and
science. (If you want to be a bit paranoid, then you may believe that doctors use Latin terms to
keep the patient from understanding, particularly when one doctor talks to
another doctor.)
But here's the scoop on why we have so many Latin and Greek
words outside of the scientific, medical, and technical vocabulary. In England,
particularly around the 17th century, writers and scholars complained that the
vocabulary of English was impoverished, that it did not have words for many
intellectual concepts. So they were coining new words at a great pace. Usually any
leaned person who knew Greek and particularly Latin could understand those
new words because he could see and understood the classical roots they were
formed from. (Latin was part of any person's advanced education and was, and still
is, used in the great universities of Oxford
and Cambridge.)
Now: Were these 17th century men correct in believing
English needed to have its vocabulary improved and enriched with new word
coinages? Here is what happened:
First, some terminology: The English language, historically,
is classified into three periods: Old English, or Anglo-Saxon (and just to
clarify, since many people do not have sound knowledge of this: Old English does
not mean "Ye Olde Tea Shoppe," but is a nearly completely foreign and
unintelligible language to Modern English speakers), spoken from about 450 AD
to about 1100 (the Normal Conquest of 1066 was a factor, but not the sole
cause, of the evolution of English from Old English to Middle English); Middle English,
going up to maybe 1550 or so; and Modern English. (Shakespeare would be--no,
not Old English but Early Modern English.)
Here is a specimen of Old English, or Anglo-Saxon. This is "Caedmon's Hymn," considered the earliest Old English text.
Nū scylun hergan hefaenrīcaes Uard,
metudæs maecti end his mōdgidanc,
uerc Uuldurfadur, suē hē uundra gihuaes,
ēci dryctin ōr āstelidæ
hē ǣrist scōp aelda barnum
heben til hrōfe, hāleg scepen.
Thā middungeard moncynnæs Uard,
eci Dryctin, æfter tīadæ
fīrum foldu, Frēa allmectig.
Now: For some time after the Normal Conquest--maybe about
300 years--the English language had sort of gone underground. The rulers and
nobles--all the people of power, position, wealth, etc.--were French-speaking Normans
or their descendants. It was the language of government, and, believe it or
not, some Norman French is still used in the British Parliament:
Acts of Parliment [sic] are confirmed in Norman
French. A literal translation of La Reyne le veult is ‘The
Queen wishes it’.
The House of Lords has been an English speaking
chamber since the 1400s; [punctuation emended] however, Norman French is still
used on formal occasions.
When a bill has passed its third reading in the
House of Commons, it goes to the House of Lords for their approval. Written at
the start of the bill are the words: ‘Soit baillé aux Seigneurs’,
meaning ‘Let it be sent to the Lords’.
When the bill is returned to the Commons, it reads
‘A ceste bille [avecque des amendmens] les Seigneurs sont
assentus’ meaning ‘To this bill [with amendments] the Lords have
assented.’
When amendments are accepted, the bill reads ‘A
ces amendmens [avecque une amendment] les Communes sont
assentus’ meaning ‘To these amendments [with an amendment] the
Commons have assented.’
Whereas La Reyne le veult is
used on most occasions when bills are passed, occasionally a much longer
portion of Norman French is used.
When approving finance bills for Royal Assent, the
Clerk says: “La Reyne, remerciant Ses bons Subjects, accepte leur
Benevolence, et ainsi le veult.”
This means: “The Queen, thanking her good
subjects, accepts their benevolence, and so wills it.”
--htpps//royalcentral.co.uk/interests/state/la-reyne-le-veult-why-are-acts-of-parliament-confirmed-in-norman-french-rather-than-english-81184/
[The seemingly haphazard use of italics is in the
original. I have, however, regularized the use the single quotation marks.]
So, getting back to my main point, French was used in
government and by the nobles and those in power (for a depiction of the
relative power between the Normans and Anglo-Saxons, see Sir Walter Scott's
novel Ivanhoe). And, the other side of the coin, English was the
language of those on the periphery, both geographically and socially--the
rustics, peasants, and those living far from London, the seat of power.
Thus, whereas Old English had words for intellectual and
theological concepts, those words had fallen out of use and out of the
language. A couple of examples: Old English used the word thrinness
(actually, a special character, no longer used in English, was used for the th),
meaning 'trinity'. Inwit meant 'conscience'. So, those words dropped out
and, once their lack was appreciated, new words for those meanings were coined
from Latin.
A number of writers were quite diligent in coining new words
to add to the English vocabulary. I believe Shakespeare gets credit for a
number of new words. A 17th century writer and physician named Sir Thomas
Browne coined many, many words, some of which did not "catch on," so
to speak, but many of which successfully entered English usage.